Hi Fellow TT'ers,
A big hats off to DJ for finally winning a major - and the US Open at that after his heartbreak at Whistling Straits and again last year.
So fellow TT'ers ... did the USGA screw up or did they apply the rule correctly?
The rule in question is 18.2 Ball Moved at Rest :
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(from the USGA Rules 2016) these are the same rules in Canada under the RCGA.
Rule 18 - Ball at Rest Moved
Definitions
All defined terms are in italics and are listed alphabetically in the Definitions section.
18-1. By Outside Agency
If a ball at rest is moved by an outside agency, there is no penalty and the ball must be
replaced.
Note: It is a question of fact whether a ball has been moved by an outside agency. In
order to apply this Rule, it must be known or virtually certain that an outside agency has
moved the ball. In the absence of such knowledge or certainty, the player must play the
ball as it lies or, if the ball is not found, proceed under Rule 27-1.
(Player's ball at rest moved by another ball - see Rule 18-5)
18-2. By Player, Partner, Caddie or Equipment
Except as permitted by the Rules, when a player's ball is in play, if
(i) the player, his partner or either of their caddies:
• lifts or moves the ball,
• touches it purposely (except with a club in the act of addressing the ball), or
• causes the ball to move, or
(ii) the equipment of the player or his partner causes the ball to move, the player incurs a
penalty of one stroke.
If the ball is moved, it must be replaced, unless the movement of the ball occurs after the
player has begun the stroke or the backward movement of the club for the stroke and the
stroke is made.
. . .
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So given the above rule and given the brief explanation on the joint USGA/R&A YouTube video on the changes to the 2016 Rules of Golf, it seems to me that Dustin Johnson was unfairly penalized 1-stroke.
From the TV angles that I saw, DJ walked up to his ball and was in the process of addressing the ball, BUT he neither ground his putter nor touched the ball. Further, he did not jump on the ground near the ball. Therefore, it can only REASONABLY be concluded that he DID NOT CAUSE his ball to move and that the ball "moved of its own accord".
To suggest otherwise as per the USGA, goes against the entire spirit of the rule change. The purpose of the rule change was to clarify this situation but if this interpretation is allowed to stand, it only confuses the issue more.
After all, lets keep in mind that this is Oakmont where the greens are reading 14+ on the stimpmeter (USGA's numbers) and move at the slightest vibration, puff of wind, shadow, etc. It is the USGA that has the greens running so fast at the US Open, that this likelihood or probability increases.
Furthermore, if you apply a logical or legal rationale, how does DJ benefit from the situation? He doesn't -- nor are the other players impaired unfairly in their play. In other words, the penalty is far, far worse than the infraction.
Anyway fellow TT'ers, that's my take on the situation -- perhaps others agree? Or have a different perspective on it?